Re: [tied] Centum in Vedic?

----- Original Message -----

From: Dean_Anderson

To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com

Sent: Monday, February 25, 2002 9:46 PM

Subject: [tied] Centum in Vedic?

> My main question is whether it is possibly left over from a Centum form of Vedic since the change from 'k'>'S' is supposed to be more likely than the opposite?

 

The source of <s.> is IE *s in the "ruki" context, not a velar stop, so it's quite clear that <kH> is secondary. Quite likely, the spelling was employed to represent a velar fricative pronunciation [x] in the dialects. The development of "ruki" *s^ to *x is attested in Slavic. A similar development has taken place in Spanish (the old pronunciation of <j/x> was [s^]).

 

Piotr