> --- In cybalist@..., "Piotr Gasiorowski" <gpiotr@...> wrote:And
> <<The pronunciation was not quite the same; it was just the closest
> approximation available to the Classical writers.>>
> Just a thought. Conversely, how did the very early Germanics
> "approximate" Greek or Roman sounds? Given the relative richnesses
> of the cultures, one would expect a lot more words going north than
> going south. Before direct contact, those words might have traveled
> through Celtic, Thracian, Scythian, Getic, Baltic, etc. speakers.
> there may have been a great deal of "approximating" going on. AndBut, conversely, from that fact that most of those Germanic loans
> there may have been a good deal of folk etymologizing afterwards to
> turn them back into "native words."
> Regards, Steve Long