> But your theory does not account for theopposition "sheer"/"bastard"
> implicit in the names.I hasten to add that I very much appreciate all the transportation
> It would seem that *bast- is a loan in both Greek and Latin. How
> about supposing that it was loaned in an adjectival sense from the
> Bastarnian language as a designation of various articles of
> Bastarnian provenance ("d'Inde" > "dinde" again)? This would also
> mean that the 'bast' in "fil de bast" would be the original
> Germanic "corruption, confusion" (also cf.
> Sw 'förbistring' "confusion", Da forbistret "accursed (because
> complicated)", loans from Low German cf. Du 'verbijsteren'), not
> immediately (but ultimately) related to 'bast' "packsaddle".