A post on Indo-European list earlier this year mentioned a theory that
Brahui, Kurukh and Malto "Dravidian outliers" in the NW came from south
India in relatively recent times, the Brahui as recruits for army.
Vidhyanath Rao noted that the "I-Ir borrowings in Brahui all seem to be
from Iranian languages and of a stage after 10c CE. This is very surprising
if they had been there from before any I-Ir presence."
I don't have an opinion on this, but I do have a question? How have they
been able to determine that the Indus texts had heavy prefixing if they
haven't deciphered it yet?
Max
>The substrate argument against identifying the Harappans (or at any
>rate the ethnic groups of the northern fringes of the Indus Valley
>civilisation) with the Dravida is quite convincing. The Indo-Aryans
>seem to have mixed with Para-Munda-speaking village communities a
>couple of centuries or so before establishing regular contacts with
>Dravidian-speakers.