From: tgpedersen@...
Message: 9062
Date: 2001-09-05
> Hi all,That's alright. I made the theory and it's also the first time I see
>
> I'm a biologist with a genuine interest in prehistory and
> linguistics, but I'm rather new in the subject.
> However this post really intrigued me, but I'm uncertain if I
> understand it correctly.
> --- In cybalist@..., "Joseph S Crary" <pva@...> wrote:
> >
> >
> > Tor
>
> It's the first time I encounter this theory and it find it quite
> amazing, so forgive me if my questions migth be a little stupid.
> Does this mean that before 120 BC (- AD 45) germanic languages werebeen
> only spoken two areas: In sweden (Nordic german) and around Vistula
> (gothic german)? (As I understand it the goths had at this time
> on the continent for more than a thousand years)continent-
>
> To me this sounds like germanic then was spoken by two amazingly
> small groups of people(relatively). Is this correct?
> Or is this illusitory -I'm thinking Sweden-sparse populated-
> dense populated as the situation is today( I'm living in the smallSome people have gotten into the habit of calling me Tor. My name is
> town 'Geatburg';-) myself) .
> Was the Scandinavian peninsula perhaps even overpopulated at this
> time, as the migration path might suggest?
>
> Best whishes
>
> Anders Malmqvist
>