Well, what proof is there that the
Pelasgians were linguistically homogeneous and that, say, the "Pelasgians" of
Lemnos spoke a language necessarily related to other Aegean substrate languages?
By assuming that they did you overstep the limits of whatever information is
available. What could Herodotus know of the language(s) of the pre-Greek
"barbaroi" of the Peloponnese and Attic, extinct long before his time? He sticks
the label "Pelasgian" on just about anyone who lived in the region before the
coming of the Greeks.
Piotr
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Tuesday, August 28, 2001 12:16 AM
Subject: [tied] Re: Views about Etruscan
Thats not the point. He only had to know they were
called Pelasgians.
We inturn have the Lemnos text. Since we have the name of
the people
of Lemnos at thistine; Pelasgian, we know their language was
Pelasgian and by extention so was Tyyrhenian.