Re: [tied] e/o

Piotr to Torsten:

>Depends who you ask (Beekes or most other authors).

Yeah, that idea sounds a little kooky. It can't be that simple.

>Most verb forms functioned as unstressed sentence clitics (even in old
>Germanic verse verbs don't normally alliterate because of their inherited
>metrical weakness), which accounts for the prevalence of *-e-vocalism in
>non-denominal verbs, while *-o- is commonly found in
>deverbal nouns and adjectives.

Wait a minute. I need clarification. Are you suggesting that *esti,
for example, has e-vocalism because of being unstressed in a typical
IE sentence while verbs with -o- (cf.stative) are that way because
of being deverbal nouns? That doesn't make sense. Then the question
still becomes: Why do all these deverbal nouns have "o" in the first
place?

- gLeN

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