What is the derivation of the Latin perfect endings? It seems to me as if
they are a mix of the sigmatic aorist and perfect endings.
Taking the indicatice endings of an -a:re verb as an example:
-ui: < *-ah2 (?)
-uisti: < *-s-th2a
-uit < *-e-t (-t presumably by analogy)
-uimus < *-me (?)
-uistis < *-s-te-s
-ue:runt < -s-ont
Or am I completely getting the wrong end of the fustis?
Danoche
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Ka yokonáu iti báyan:
"cas'alyá abhiyo".
Ka tso iti mantabayan: "yama zaláyá
alánekayam la s'alika, cas'alika; ka
yama
yavarryekayan arannáam la vácika, labekayam
vácika, ka ali
cas'alyeko vanotira."
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Dan
Jones