Re: Germanic *fánhan

--- In cybalist@..., g-tegle@... wrote:

> To the germanic infinitive *fánhan my etymological dictionary gives

a

> reduplicated imperf. sg. *fe-gánh-. ... it gives no explanation as
> to *[g] in the *-gánh- stem with which the reduplicated imperfect
> form was made.

For the `g' in `ganh' I blame the dictionary's printer's mistypist.
The F and G keys are next to each other.

The `g' is `fang' rather than `fanh' has a valid linguistic
explanation :: if the stress inherited from IE came after the
fricative, the fricative became voiced.