Re: [tied] Etruscan phonetics

Sergei about Joao's connections between Velchans and *welk-:

>If the above examples are trustworthy, it may mean that we should re-
>think conventional phonetic interpretation of Etruscan stops. Why in
>borrowings /ch/ [kh?] (and not /c/ [k?]) renders [k], /f/ [f? or
>bilabial fricative?] (and not /p/ [p?]) renders [p] etc. May be
>Etruscan 'mutae' are not conventional voiceless? Or this reflexes
>some kind of later 'shift'?

There is no voice in Etruscan stops. It's generally agreed that this is an
aspirate/inaspirate contrast. As for the labial stop /p/, in connection with
trying to relate it to Proto-IndoEuropean phonology, I arrive at a
conclusion that Etruscan only had ONE labial stop /p/=/ph/. Just thoughts,
anyway.

- gLeN


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