Re: [tied] p>zero Celts

> >How was the evolution PIE *p > Celtic *zero?
> >
> >p>f>h>zero?
>
> I've seen the /h/-phase illustrated by Hercynia Silva (*herkunia <
> *perkunia).
>
> I don't think /f/ is a necessary intermediate step. The development
> might have been /p/ (phonetic [ph], as in English, or Welsh) > /h/ >
> zero. Similarly in Armenian.

We have to consider here the early Lepontic form (written in a variant of
the Etruscan alphabet):
uvamo (from PIE *up-m-o)

Unfortunately, we can't be certain of the exact way to interpret the -v-
(whether it is like the English -v-, or represents perhaps English -w-).
Lepontic is likely a very close cousin of Gaulish, if not an actual Gaulish
dialect, and had already mutated PIE -kw- into -p-.

-Chris Gwinn