p>zero Celts

From: João Simões Lopes Filho
Message: 5102
Date: 2000-12-17

How was the evolution PIE *p > Celtic *zero?
 
p>f>h>zero?
 
If it's sure, why p>f and t>t k>k? Or can we deduce...
PIE *p > *f > Celtic *h >zero
PIE *t > *th > Celtic *t
PIE *k > *x > Celtic *k
 
And in Arabian?
Why there's no "p" in Arabian?
 
Joao SL
Rio