Re: [tied] (unknown)

From: Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
Message: 4856
Date: 2000-11-26

On Sat, 25 Nov 2000 18:37:23 +0100, "Piotr Gasiorowski"
<gpiotr@...> wrote:

>One could also postulate *-a:ns, *-o:ns, *-ons > *-aNx > *uNx > *u:, collapsing the last two stages with the development of the Acc.pl. of u-stems (*su:nuns > *syny) and thus making for greater parsimony.

Yes. I don't know when the nasality was lost, but it would make sense
that it was at the /u~/ stage (there's /a~/ ~ /o~/ but no /u~/ in
attested Slavic).

>As for the Acc.pl. of *jo- and *-ja: stems, that is North Slavic *-je^ corresponding to South Slavic *-jeN, we could have
>
>*-jons, *-ja:ns > *-jaNx > *-jeNx > *-je: (with dialectal denasalisation) ~ *-jeN

OK, that's possible. I forgot umlauted /ą/ gives /ję/.

>Some authors (e.g. Van Wijk and Kortlandt) attempt to trace the South Slavic present participle in *-y and Northern forms in *-a back to a common prototype. The former is easy to derive from PIE *-onts if, as elsewhere, *ts > pre-Slavic *s (*-onts > *-ans > ... > *-y), but the participle in *-a is rather puzzling.

Although my alma mater is Leiden, I'm afraid I don't know how van Wijk
and Kortlandt attempt to do this...

>Milewski (1948) proposes the following scenario (for my taste, it involves far too much prestidigitation):
>
>*-o:nt(s) > *-a:nt > *-a:t (yielding -a), dialectally *-a:(t)s (with analogic *s) > *-a:s (yielding -y)
>
>He also suggests (plausibly this time) that Old Polish -eN (which is many times more frequent than -a) derives from neuter *-ont (> *-aNt > *-uNt > *-oN), and assumes that the neuter form was generalised for participles in *-jont-, which show a nasal (*-jeN) throughout the Slavic branch. It may have been so, but an original *-jonts > *-jaNs would have ended up as *-jeN anyway, at least in South Slavic.
>
>To conclude, I'd propose:
>
>*-ont-s (masculine) > *-aNx > ... > *-y
>*-ont-i: (feminine) > *-aNti: > *-oNtji (with *j of analogical origin)
>*-ont (neuter) > *-aNt > ... > *-oN
>
>*-j-ont-s > ... > *-jeN (~ *je:? perh. in Czech znaje, Russ. znaja, etc.)
>*-j-ont-i: > ... > *-jeNtji
>*-j-ont > ... > *jeN
>
>This leaves -a unexplained. Any suggestions? The only possibility that I can think of is that the *-a of *znaja < *zna:-ja: < *zna:-je: was generalised as the Nom.sg. ending of masculine participles in some (not all) North Slavic dialects.

Ingenious. I've never thought about this question, but my first
reflex is to think of Skt. (raj)-a:, Lat. (hom)-o:, Lith. (akm)-uo in
the n-stems (though not, to be sure, in the nt-stems).

>P.S. I'd like to return to your argument that forms like OCS robotU contain a reinforced jer in the penult syllable. As argued already by Rozwadowski (1914), this explanation doesn't take into account the dialectal distribution of the -o- forms. The development of reinforced *U into o would not be surprising in West Bulgarian/Macedonian dialects, but this -o- is also found in dialects that generally preserve the back jer unchanged (West Bulgarian) as well as those in which *U > e in strong positions, cf. Old Czech vec^eros 'tonight'.

Well, I don't know where and when exactly the forms you mentioned
(narodo-sI, rabo-tU) are attested. Leskien (9th [=8th] ed., 1969
[1962]) 17.4 quotes exactly these two from the Codex Zographensis,
where the yers are usually maintained intact, with "vereinzelt" <e>
for <I> and "noch seltener" <o> for <U> (in the two forms in question,
but also in <crUkovI>, <ljubovU>). An interesting one is given for
the Codex Marianus: moz^eto-sI. If we accept rabotU < *arbos tos,
then it follows that moz^eto-sI < *moghe-to(s) k^i(s). I know that's
one way of explaining Slavic 3rd.p.sg. -tU for expected -tI (which
also occurs), but it's not uncontroversial.


=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...