Re: IE athematics

Ivanov and Gamkrelidze state that /b/ in PIE *ablu- 'apple' is eventually
from [m] (they mean borrowing from something like
substratum(Hurrian?)/migrating *Samlu- 'the same'). If they are right, and
PIE speakers turned [m] into [b], why could not they turn *m-l-? into *bVlH
and then, rejecting unnatural *b, into pVlH?

Important reservation.
I'm not trying to support any part of the discussion :)))
Just a thought.

Sergei

> On a side note, I'm rethinking your remarks on *pelh-. There is
> no *pelh- at
> all, is there? I only find attestations that show *pleh- in
> Greek, Latin and
> Sanskrit. Of course, that there this a Semitic root *m-l-? "to
> fill" may or
> may not have a bearing on my so-far lunatic theory. I'll try to structure
> this theory according to your input and get back to you.
>
> - gLeN